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William Shakespeare's "Hamlet": Is He Really Mad?
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5 pages in length. For the typical individual, believing in ghosts was akin to presuming that the apparitions were Satan taking on the appearance of the dead in a jeopardizing fashion. William Shakespeare's Hamlet also adopts such application, particularly in the first half of the play, which is both obvious and veiled at the same time; no one wants to assume responsibility for seeing the ghost when it initially reveals itself. In fact, in the very first act, Hamlet warned his friends that he might sham an antic disposition, continuing to do so throughout the play as he plots his revenge. Does the fact that Hamlet's ability to see the ghost make him mad? Or does he only appear to be mad because he has no one with whom to relate these unsettling experiences? Bibliography lists 6 sources.
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Paper Title:
William Shakespeare's "Hamlet": Is He Really Mad?
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